Group Processes and Stages of Formation Essay Assignment Papers

Group Processes and Stages of Formation Essay Assignment Papers
In your role, you must understand group processes and stages of formation, as this will help you develop groups and determine an individual’s appropriateness for group therapy. Whether you are at the beginning stages of group formation or facilitating a session for a developed group, it is important to consider factors that may influence individual client progress. For this Assignment, as you examine the video Group Therapy: A Live Demonstration in this week’s Learning Resources, consider the group’s processes, stages of formation, and other factors that might impact the effectiveness of group therapy for clients.
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Learning Objectives
Students will:
Analyze group processes and stages of formation
Analyze curative factors of groups
Analyze the impact of curative factors on client progress
Recommend strategies for managing intragroup conflict
To prepare:
Review this week’s Learning Resources and reflect on the insights they provide on group processes.
View the media, Group Therapy: A Live Demonstration, and consider the group dynamics.
The Assignment
In a 2- to 3-page paper, address the following:
Explain the group’s processes and stage of formation.
Explain curative factors that occurred in the group. Include how these factors might impact client progress.
Explain intragroup conflict that occurred and recommend strategies for managing the conflict. Support your recommendations with evidence-based literature.
Group Processes and Stages of Formation Essay Assignment Papers

NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

Find below the NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers, questions only, if you need the answers, please place your order with us.

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  1. The AGACNP is caring for a patient who is quite ill and has developed, among other things, a large right sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is sent for pleural fluid analysis. While evaluating the fluid analysis, the AGACNP knows that a fluid identified as a(n) __________ is the least worrisome type.
  2. Mrs. Miller is transported to the emergency department by paramedics. She is having profound, unremitting chest pain, is diaphoretic and pale. She has jugular venous distention and a widened pulse pressure. Suspecting ascending aortic aneurysm, the AGACNP order which test to confirm the diagnosis?
  3. Certain subgroups of the elderly population are at an increased risk for rapid deterioration and long-term care placement. Which of the following is not considered a high risk factor for long term care placement?
  4. A patient with anterior epistaxis has been treated with 20 minutes of direct pressure to the cartilaginous portion of the nose. Following pressure the patient is instructed to gently blow the nose. Expected findings in the patient who has been successfully treated include all of the following except a:
  5. Kevin is a 14-year-old male who presents for evaluation of a fever of 102.5° F and significant right ear pain. He appears quite ill and says he feels nauseous. Otoscopic evaluation reveals pain to palpation, a very erythematous and bulging tympanic membrane with bullous myringitis. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be selected to cover:
  6. P.M. is a 71-year-old gay male patient who presents as an outpatient for evaluation of increasing shortness of breath. The diagnostic evaluation ultimately supports a diagnosis of community acquired pneumonia. The AGACNP appreciates right middle lobe consolidation on chest radiography. Pending sputum cultures, empiric antibiotic therapy must be initiated to cover which organism? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  7. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for vascular dementia?
  8. J.R. is a 55-year-old male who presents for a commercial driver’s license physical examination with a blood pressure of 170/102 mm Hg. He has no medical history and is without complaint. Which of the following findings constitutes hypertensive urgency? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  9. Because of the commonly recognized adverse effects of atypical antipsychotics, annual laboratory assessment for patients taking these medications should include a:
  10. K.R. presents for an evaluation of eye discomfort. He works in a fabricating shop for a custom automobile restoration company and while working he felt like something flew into his eye. He was wearing eye protection at the time but still has the sensation that something is there. Physical examination is significant for some tearing and he reports a persistent sense of something in his eye. Which of the following is not indicated in the diagnostic evaluation? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  11. D.E. is a 41-year-old female who had lumbar surgery two days ago to repair a ruptured nucleus pulposus. She has been doing well postoperatively but today is complaining of resting fatigue and some shortness of breath at rest. In ruling out a pulmonary embolus the AGACNP first orders a:
  12. Mr. Nixon is being treated with unfractionated heparin infusion for acute pulmonary embolus. In order to avoid a potentially fatal complication of heparin infusion, the AGACNP monitors:
  13. Differentiating vertigo from near-syncope and ataxia is one of the goals of history-taking when a patient presents as “dizzy.” The AGACP knows that vertigo is the problem when the patient reports the primary symptom as:
  14. Mr. Banks has been admitted for surgical resection of a metastatic tumor, during surgery it is discovered that he has widespread, diffuse metastasis throughout the abdomen. Surgery is no longer an option, and his oncologist says that chemotherapy is unlikely to produce any meaningful benefit. Mr. Banks is concerned that his sons will not support a transfer to comfort care. The AGACNP advises that he:
  15. Mr. Wilkerson is a 77-year-old male who is being evaluated and treated for his cardiogenic pain. His vital signs are as follows: Temperature of 99.1° F, pulse of 100 bpm, respirations of 22 bpm, and blood pressure of 168/100 mm Hg. A 12-lead ECG reveals deep ST segment depression in leads V3-V6. The AGACNP recognizes which of the following as a contraindication to rTPA therapy? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  16. A 71-year-old patient is recovering from a particularly severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been in the hospital for almost two weeks and was on mechanical ventilation for 7 days. While discussing his discharge plan he tells you that he is really going to quit smoking this time. He acknowledges that he has been “sneaking” cigarettes in the hospital for two days, but he has established a timeline to decrease the number of cigarettes daily. According to his plan his last cigarette will be the last day of the month. This patient’s behavior is consistent with which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change?
  17. While assessing a patient with a known psychiatric history, the AGACNP knows that the primary difference between a psychotic and neurotic disorders is: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  18. L.T. is an 85-year-old male who is admitted for evaluation of profound diarrhea that has produced significant dehydration. He also complains of being very tired lately, and feeling like he is going to vomit all of the time. His vital signs are significant for a pulse of 41 b.p.m. and a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. A gastrointestinal evaluation including stool for blood, white blood cells, and ova and parasites is negative. He insists that he has not started any new medications or made any diet changes; the only thing new is that he got new eye drops for his glaucoma. The AGACNP correctly assumes that his new eye drops are:
  19. Janice is a 19-year-old female who presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She is pale, diaphoretic, agitated, and convinced she is having a stroke. Her vital signs include a temperature of 98.9° F, pulse of 114 beats per minute, respirations of 32 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/74 mm Hg. Diagnostic evaluation is negative and Janice is diagnosed with an acute panic attack. The initial treatment of choice is:
  20. Lorraine is a 41-year-old female who presents for an asthma follow-up visit. She says she feels very well, has almost no daytime symptoms, and is using her inhaled corticosteroid medication daily as prescribed. Her PEFR is 85% of her personal best. The best approach to this patient is to:
  21. Mr. Owen is a 37-year-old patient who has been admitted for surgical resection of a malignant tumor in his lung. His physical recovery has been uneventful and he is being prepared for discharge. While discussing his ongoing cancer therapy with Mr. Owen, the AGACNP determines that he has experienced persistent, excessive anxiety and worry almost every day for more than one year. What other aspect of Mr. Owen’s psychosocial history would be required to made a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder?
  22. Kevin T. is a 49-year-old male who is being discharged after hospitalization for an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. This is his first hospitalization and his first chronic medical diagnosis. Aside from his elevated cardiac isoenzymes and troponins, his laboratory profile was essentially within normal limits. The only apparent cardiac risk factor is an LDL cholesterol of 200 mg/dL. Initiating an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor is an example of which level of prevention for Kevin?
  23. You are evaluating a patient who has been admitted to the emergency room after being arrested for starting a fight in a local sports’ bar. The patient is now being cooperative, but reports that he has been in treatment for PTSD for months. He has been prescribed fluoxetine but has not noticed any improvement in symptoms, and now has been arrested for violence. The AGACNP knows that the next step in medication management is likely to include:
  24. Mrs. Salter is an 81-year-old lady who presents for evaluation of near-syncopal episodes. Her 12-lead ECG, complete blood count, and comprehensive metabolic panel are all essentially normal. A urinalysis shows some trace protein but is otherwise normal. A 24-hour rhythm monitor demonstrates rare premature ventricular contractions. Mrs. Salter has been in good health and had her first episode at her aerobics class. She only gets lightheaded when she exerts herself. Her heart auscultates for a grade III/VI systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the second intercostal space, right sternal border. The AGACP considers that the likely cause of the syncope is:
  25. Who among the following patients is at greatest risk for a pulmonary embolus?
  26. Mrs. Birdsong is an 85-year-old female who has been admitted for surgical repair of a hip fracture. She is in remarkably good spirits and is quite talkative. She readily answers all of the questions on her intake assessment, and readily acknowledges information provided during her room orientation. Later while talking with the patient’s son the AGACNP learns that the patient has had significant cognitive impairment for a few years. She has virtually no short term memory, but compensates by confabulating. Her son says she is generally very happy as long as there is no change in her day to day routine. This history is most consistent with which form of dementia?
  27. Mrs. Radovich is an 80-year-old female with a variety of chronic medical conditions which are reasonably well controlled. She generally enjoys a good quality of life and is active with her family. Today her only concern is that she is having problems with her vision. She notices that while trying to look at pictures of her great grandchildren she can’t seem to focus on their faces. She also reports increased trouble reading—she cannot seem to see the words that she is looking at, and her reading glasses do not help. Further evaluation of Mrs. Radovich should include assessment with:
  28. R.J. is a 55-year-old female who presents with acute onset left sided facial pain and an inability to move the left side of her face. She cannot smile, raise her eyebrow or even close her left eye, The immediate approach to this patient should include:
  29. A 78-year-old male present for a physical examination. He has no discomfort or complaints other than a general decrease in vision, but it helps when he puts things under a bright light to read. He admits that while driving at night the streetlights appear to be a bit distorted and his night vision is pretty poor. Given the likely diagnosis, the AGACNP expects which of the following physical findings?
  30. Jason is a 46-year-old male who is being managed for sepsis. He has HIV/AIDS and has had a prolonged hospitalization characterized by a variety of complications. He was extubated 3 days ago but continues gastric decompression with a nasogastric tube(NGT), total parenteral nutrition and antibiotic therapy via a central venous catheter, and urinary drainage via a Foley catheter. He continues to demonstrate consistent low grade fevers but all points of insertion of his tubes are normal to inspection, a chest radiograph demonstrates improvement of his pneumonia, and his urinalysis shows no bacteria, leukocytes, or nitrites. The AGACNP should next order: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  31. The interpretation of a chest radiography should follow a systematic approach to ensure that all vital structures are evaluated and important clinical findings are not missed. The last thing to be assessed when looking at chest radiography should be the _____________:
  32. The Short Confusion Assessment Method (Short-CAM) is a widely used four item tool that assesses delirium in the hospitalized patient. It includes observation of all of the following except: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  33. Ms. Yang has been hospitalized for 5 days for the management of a gastrointestinal bleeding. She appears to have stabilized hemodynamically, but today she had a temperature of 101.9° F and chest radiography demonstrates a diagnosis of pneumonia. The AGACNP knows that the diagnostic evaluation for hospital acquired pneumonia for all patients must include:
  34. Most psychosocial theories of aging center around the core concept that successful aging requires acceptance of a series of changes or losses that predictably occur later in the life span. The theory that specifically addresses coming to terms with the inevitability of death is known as:
  35. All of the following conditions are risk factors for pulmonary embolus except:
  36. A patient is diagnosed with acute descending aortic aneurysm and hypertension should be immediately started on which medication pending surgical evaluation?
  37. Jason is a 27-year-old with a long history of intermittently controlled asthma. He is currently prescribed Advair daily with albuterol as needed for symptoms. Today he presents to the emergency department with cough and wheezing and difficulty catching his breath. His FEV1is 51% at the time of presentation. He is given alternating albuterol and ipratropium nebulizer treatments along with oral prednisone. After one hour his FEV1 has increased 65%. The appropriate disposition for Jason at this point is:
  38. A patient in the intensive care unit suddenly becomes tachypneic and dyspneic. The physical examination reveals pale, cool, clammy skin and an arterial blood gas demonstrates hypocapnea and hypoxia. Pulmonary artery pressure demonstrates a pattern consistent with obstructive shock. The AGACNP knows that which of the following causes of this presentation is most likely? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  39. Mr. Bowers is an 81-year-old male who is being terminally extubated at the request of his family due to the presence of a large subdural hematoma with a shift; the patient is not initiating respirations on his own and the prognosis is very poor. After he is extubated he begins to initiate his own respirations and 24 hours later has not expired yet. The decision is made to leave him in the hospital on a general medical floor rather than transfer to another facility for hospice. Which of the following is the best indicator that the patient’s death is imminent?
  40. A patient is newly admitted to your service for open reduction and internal fixation of the left hip. She seems very down, and as you talk with her you realize that her mood is not just related to her hip fracture. Which of the following symptoms would not be consistent with major depressive disorder?
  41. “C” is the correct answer. Alzheimer’s dementia is statistically the most common form of dementia and is characterized by a long trajectory that progresses to include confabulation. Additionally, patients with this form of dementia are very reliant upon routine and may be distressed when it is disrupted. “A” is not correct; Lewy body dementia characteristically progresses much more quickly and produces an angry demeanor. “B” is incorrect because vascular dementia typically produces a more depressive affect and is not characterized by confabulation; additionally, patients with vascular dementia often have a medical history consistent with vascular risk factors. “D” is not correct as there is no apparent history of Parkinson’s disease.
  42. What is the primary purpose of using eye ointments or lubricants to patients under general anesthesia, on paralytics, or in long-term comatose states? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  43. When reading a 12-lead electrocardiogram, the AGACNP knows that all 12 leads are required to provide:
  44. A 49-year-old male presents for evaluation of chest tightness. It has happened before, but he just ignored it and it went away. Today he just could not ignore it anymore. He has always enjoyed good health and says he has never been told that he has any chronic medical conditions like high blood pressure or diabetes. A 12-lead ECG demonstrates changes consistent with inferior wall ischemia. Both his symptoms and inferior wall changes improve with the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin. Consistent with ACS protocol, this patient’s assessment is consistent with:
  45. Mr. Rosen is a 49-year-old male who is being managed for an acute myocardial infarction. He develops significant shortness of breath at rest and coarse rales 2/3 up bilaterally. The AGACNP suspects acute pulmonary edema due to papillary muscle rupture and acute mitral valve regurgitation. Which physical finding would support this finding?
  46. A patient with minor head trauma presents for evaluation. Which of the following findings should be followed up with a CT scan to rule out orbital fracture? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  47. Mrs. Forbes is a 69-year-old lady being discharged from the hospital after complications following a cosmetic surgical procedure. She is basically in good health. She has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine daily, and mild osteoarthritis which is controlled with only prn nonsteroidal use. Her blood pressure is 148/90 mm Hg. The AGACNP knows that in accordance with the most current guidelines published in JNC 8 the appropriate action is to:
  48. When assessing driver safety in the older adult, the AGACNP considers that:
  49. The nursing staff calls to tell you that your 81-year-old male patient is having an acute change in mental status. He is a basically healthy man who was admitted three days ago for inpatient antibiotic management of community acquired pneumonia. His daughter is at the bedside and she is very distraught because she has never seen him like this. She is asking for medication to make him stop acting disoriented. Upon examination the patient is lying in bed, appears calm and happy, but does not recognize his daughter as anyone he knows. He is talking as if he is at home and has company. The AGACNP instructs the daughter that: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  50. While discharging a patient following her myocardial infarction, you offer some patient education about medically supervised cardiac rehabilitation. The patient expresses fear of rehab because she was on her treadmill when she had her infarction and now she is afraid of making it happen again. She doesn’t understand how the rehab can force her to exercise her heart but not make her have another cardiac event. The AGACNP explains that the patient will be monitored and that her goal heart rate will be:
  51. During physical examination of a 51-year-old African-American female you appreciate a decrease in her peripheral vision. The rest of her eye examination is within normal limits and she is symptom free. This presentation is consistent with:
  52. Mr. Moffett is a 66-year-old male with a long history of lower extremity edema. All other causes of lower extremity edema have been ruled out and his overall symptom presentation and history are strongly supportive of chronic venous insufficiency. Today he presents with increased itching of both lower legs. Physical exam reveals 2-3+ pitting edema and trophic hyperpigmentation. The AGACNP know that treatment should include:
  53. L.R. is an 84-year-old female patient being treated for pneumonia. Her condition is deteriorating despite aggressive broad spectrum antipseudomonal cephalosporin antibiotic therapy. Induced sputum culture reveals heavy growth of Legionella pneumophilia. The AGACNP knows that antibiotic therapy must be adjusted to include coverage with:
  54. The AGACNP is treating a patient with a corneal abrasion. The patient has a clear recollection of the mechanism of injury—she was scratched in the eye earlier today with her 18-month-old daughter’s fingernail. Which of the following is contraindicated in the management of this patient’s abrasion?
  55. M.T. is a 41-year-old male patient in the intensive care unit. He was admitted to the hospital in septic shock and has been aggressively managed with broad spectrum antibiotics. He has become progressively hypoxemic and the last arterial blood gas revealed a paO2of 58 mm Hg. Chest radiography reveals a “white out” pattern bilaterally. The patient is intubated and ventilated. The AGACNP knows that appropriate management must include:
  56. Teenagers and adults with acute otitis media can often be treated with “watchful waiting” given the high incidence of spontaneous resolution and low risk of poor outcomes. Which of the following is an absolute indication to begin antibiotic therapy at the time of diagnosis?
  57. Mr. Bowers is on mechanical ventilation for respiratory support through an episode of septic pneumonia. Due the extensive lobar consolidation it was very difficult to keep Mr. Bowers oxygenated and he required very high FIO2s and PEEP. The AGACNP knows that the primary concern with FIO2s > 60% is:
  58. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) occurs when an overwhelming systemic insult results in which maladaptive physiologic response? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  59. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by which abnormality of ventilation and perfusion?
  60. George Schulz is a 69-year-old male who presents for evaluation of acute foot pain. It is so painful that he cannot walk on it without assistance. At first he denies any significant medical history, but then reveals that he has been diagnosed with dyslipidemia and hypertension but stopped taking his medications because he couldn’t afford it. Pulses are not palpable but are audible by Doppler. The extremity is pale and shiny with decreased hair growth, suspecting peripheral arterial disease, the AGACNP expects which additional finding?
  61. G.T. is a 40-year-old male who is under your case for long term management of secondary osteoarthritis. Today he asks if he can take a medication for anxiety. Further assessment reveals that he is in a relationship that has been very stressful; his girlfriend wants very much to get married and start a family, and he does not. He admits that he no longer feels they are compatible and acknowledges that he needs to end this relationship. He is sure that this is the source of his anxiety. The best approach would be to:
  62. During the physical examination of a 31-year-old female, the AGACNP appreciates a bifurcate uvula. The most appropriate action would be to:
  63. During routine immigration screening a 29-year-old male patient from Mexico has a positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test at 17 mm induration. He reports no known history of tuberculosis (TB) infection or exposure, or vaccination with the BCG vaccine. Chest x-ray is negative for any evidence of TB exposure. The AGACNP knows that the appropriate next step is to:
  64. Clinical diagnostic criteria for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) include all of the following except:
  65. While managing a patient in acute pulmonary edema, the AGACNP monitors the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure. When this pressure falls below 12 mm Hg it suggests that:
  66. All of the following are important elements of the immediate management of penetrating eye injury except:
  67. While evaluating a patient with diastolic failure due to a long history of uncontrolled hemochromatosis, the AGACNP appreciates an extra heart sound just before the S1heart sound. This sound is most likely a(n):
  68. Secondary hypertension occurs in approximately 10% of all patients with hypertension, and requires management of the underlying problem in order to eliminate the cause. Which of the following is not a secondary cause of hypertension?
  69. L.M, is a 26-year-old male who presents to the emergency department complaining of acute onset vertigo this morning. He describes a strong sense of the room spinning and can barely walk without feeling nauseous. The vertigo is reproducible when his neck is rotated suddenly left or right. The AGACNP knows that which of the following is not indicated? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  70. A 36-year-old female presents complaining of left leg swelling. She describes the onset as acute over the last day or two, and says it feels “tight and throbbing.” She denies any significant medical history and says the only medication she takes is oral contraception, which she has taken since she was 15 years old. The AGACNP first orders:
  71. The primary neurotransmitter implicated in post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is:
  72. Mr. Avila is an 82-year-old male being counseled about the risks and benefits of his upcoming abdominal surgery. While considering risk factors for atelectasis, pneumonia and other pulmonary complications, the AGACNP advises that the greatest risk comes from:
  73. The female AGACNP is practicing with a cardiology group and sees patients one day a week in the outpatient office. A 49-year-old female presents for follow-up after her admission for infective endocarditis. She is recovering well, and says that she is going to be more proactive about her health. She admits to not having had any of her regular health screenings for years, and asks if she can have her Pap performed at this office. The AGACNP:
  74. The AGACNP is seeing a patient who was transferred from the correctional facility for evaluation. He has a profound purulent discharge from his right eye. The conjunctive is erythematous and there is mild photosensitivity. The inmate denies any real eye pain, just says that it is extremely uncomfortable. Treatment for this patient is likely to include:
  75. Ms. Ewing is a 78-year-old female who lives in a long term care facility because her dementia has progressed to the point at which her family cannot provide the necessary safety measures at home. In addition to her absent short term memory she has developed some affective changes and most recently is demonstrating sexual disinhibition. While considering management options, the AGACNP knows that all of the following are medications are options for the management of disinhibition except:
  76. A patient recently had a nasal packing inserted for management of refractory epistaxis. One week later he presents with fatigue, a headache “inside of his nose” and a feeling generally unwell. The AGACNP considers:
  77. A 55-year-old female patient presents with a fever of 103.4° F. She was treated approximately 10 days ago at urgent care for a sinus infection, but two days ago the right side of her fact started to hurt, and today she has significant swelling of the right orbit and eyelid. The eyelid is very edematous and there is purulent drainage noted. The priority of care for this patient begins with:
  78. Which of the following is the best indicator that pulmonary rehabilitation has been successful in a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  79. Mrs. Marriott is being discharged to home after being managed for an exacerbation of congestive heart failure. She is currently feeling well but her ejection fraction after optimal diuresis and fluid management is 29%. The AGACNP knows that her discharge medications must include:
  80. Which of the following is an accurate statement with respect to the assessment of delirium in the geriatric patient?
  81. Mrs. Warner is a 57-year-old female who presents with unplanned weight loss. Chest radiography reveals diffuse hyperlucency of the left lung and in the lower half of the right lung. The AGACNP knows that the differential diagnosis for hyperlucency include all of the following except:
  82. When evaluating a patient with epistaxis, which of the following signs or symptoms is suggestive of a more serious etiology and posterior packing?
  83. R.M. is a 15-year-old male who presents to the emergency department with his mother. Mom says he has been complaining that his throat hurts so badly he cannot even swallow saliva. According to Mom R.M. is not the type to complain, but he is in so much pain with his throat he is almost crying. He has no significant medical history and takes no daily medications. He has no allergies of which his mother is aware. Upon physical examination he is febrile with a temperature of 102.4° F and he is a bit tachycardic, but other vital signs or normal. Inspection of the throat is basically unremarkable—the AGACNP does not appreciate any abscesses, edema, or exudate; there may be some slight erythema. The AGACNP becomes suspicious that the patient:
  84. Mr. Stossel is a 66-year-old male patient who was admitted for management of acute anterior wall myocardial infarction. Over a period of hours he has developed acute shortness of breath, coarse rales to auscultation, and Kerley B lines on chest radiography. Arterial blood gas reveals a pH of 7.34, pCO2of 30 mm Hg, and paO2 of 59 mm Hg. The AGACNP anticipates which of the following findings on physical examination?
  85. According to the revised criteria in DSM-V, the primary difference between panic attacks and panic disorder is that: NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
  86. Mr. Wilson is a 71-year-old male who has been treated with prn short acting anticholinergics for his COPD. Last week he developed an exacerbation that required a 4 day hospitalization for support and stabilization. He was discharged on a five day course of prednisone and now presents for follow-up. The AGACNP knows that his outpatient medication regimen should be adjusted to include:

What is the primary difference in patient management between high risk non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (MI) and the low risk non-ST elevation MI patient?
J.T. is a 26-year-old female patient being evaluated for eye discharge. She says that for the last few days she has developed this sticky, string-like discharge in both eyes. She denies any pain or visual changes, but does admit to a sense of “something in my eyes” and that her eyes itch a lot. Physical examination reveals injected conjunctiva, rope-like discharge bilaterally; pupil response is equal and brisk in both eyes. Which factor in the patient’s history would be supportive of the most likely diagnosis? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers
The pathophysiology of endogenous depression is best described as
The diagnostic study most supportive of a diagnosis of pericarditis is:
A 31-year-old male presents to urgent care because he has something in his eye. He was changing the oil under his car and says that something dropped into his eye. He is not having any pain, in fact he waited a day before coming in because he thought it would work itself out. Physical exam reveals a black 1 mm foreign body visible on the corneal surface. The most appropriate intervention is to:
A patient with pericarditis is most appropriately treated with:
Which of the following is not a risk factor for thoracic aneurysm?
The “MONA” acronym provides guidance for immediate interventions in the patient with:
Mr. Sloane is a 36-year-old male patient who presents for treatment of eye pain. He has no significant medical history and does not take any daily or over-the-counter medications. His only recent history is nighttime allergies for which he takes occasional diphenhydramine with good relief. He has had some throbbing in his eye for the last few days on and off but just ignored it; today he says it is flat out painful and he had to come to the emergency department. The eye is throbbing and painful, and he reports generalized decreased vision. The pupil is dilated to 5 mm and non-reactive to light. The eye conjunctiva is reddened. The next step in the diagnostic evaluation should be:
The AGACNP counsels a patient with recurrent epistaxis that the most common cause of nose bleeding is
The geriatric depression scale (GDS) is a commonly used tool to diagnose depression in the elderly population. It comes in a variety of forms for maximal utility. When administering the geriatric depression scale to patients, the AGACNP recognizes that it is extremely important to:
Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is a significant problem impacting morbidity, mortality and the cost of inpatient health care. Data-supported mechanisms to reduce the risk for VAP include all of the following except:
Absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy in the patient having an acute myocardial infarction include all of the following except:
Which of the following is not a true statement with respect to risk for or occurrence of elder abuse? NURS 6550 Midterm Exam Walden – Questions and Answers

NURS 6640 WALDEN – ONLINE MID TERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

NURS 6640 WALDEN – ONLINE MID TERM EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

QUESTION 1

  1. The PMHNP understands that anxiety and depression are two disorders in which their symptoms may overlap. When discussing this, you explain that the autonomic nervous system is activated and further helps distinguish anxiety symptoms by making the following points:

A.”You may experience an elevated heart rate, constant worrying, and diarrhea.
“B.”You may experience fear, sweating, and muscle tension.
“C.”You may experience an elevated heart rate, the need to urinate, and fear.
“D.”You may experience sleepiness, decreased blood pressure, and fear.”
 
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1 points  
QUESTION 2

  1. The PMHNP is working with a school-aged child who has been diagnosed with depression. The child has attended several sessions with the PMNHP, but recently presents with avoidant behavior by showing increased distress and being late to sessions. What approach does the PMHNP need to employ with the child to continue making therapeutic progress?

A.Remaining quiet until the child is ready to talk
B.Using communication techniques that are expressive
C.Inviting the child’s parents to speak on behalf of the child
D.All of the above
 
1 points  
QUESTION 3
After informing a prospective patient about limits of confidentiality, the patient consents to the “conditions” of confidentiality and signs an informed consent form. Several weeks later, a lawyer representing the patient’s spouse for a court case, asks the PMHNP for the disclosure of information about the patient. The PMHNP should:
A.Disclose all patient information as requested
B.Refuse to disclose any confidential information
C.Limit disclosure to the extent legally possible
D.Ignore the request based on ethical reasons
 
1 points  
QUESTION 4
In your office, you see a 58-year-old patient with PTSD who reports having nightmares, making it impossible for her to sleep. What recommendations based on principles of sleep hygiene will the PMHNP make?
A.Eat a heavy meal before bedtime to induce sleepiness
B.Maintain a warm bedroom temperature
C.Avoid watching television or reading in bed
D.Try going to sleep at different times throughout the week to avoid monotony
 
1 points  
QUESTION 5
An 11-year-old patient has been exhibiting low self-esteem at school and acting out. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, which of the following questions would best be addressed first by the PMHNP?
A.”Are Joel’s peers including him at recess?
“B.”Does Joel feel safe and secure at school?”
C.”Is Joel getting enough sleep at home?”
D.”How can Joel feel that he is loved?”
NURS 6640 Walden – Online Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers
QUESTION 13

  1. You are seeing a 29-year-old widow whose husband recently died overseas while serving his country in the military. She has been mourning the loss of her husband for several months, and continues to grieve. She refuses to go to group grieving sessions, but reports that she is still able to go to work and her fitness classes sometimes, and even makes attempts to stay social. She says, “Sometimes it’s like he’s not even gone. Other times it feels like it’s been an eternity since I’ve seen him. It’s hard to talk about this type of stuff with my girlfriends, especially since all of their husbands are still alive.” The PMHNP understands that it is appropriate to employ which therapeutic principle?
  2. Encouraging catharsisB.Encouraging abreaction to repressed feelingsC.Identifying conflict-resolution techniquesD.All of the above

NURS 6640 Walden – Online Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers
QUESTION 19

  1. The PMHNP is meeting with a 38-year-old divorced, single mother who has been seeing the PMHNP for anxiety and anger management. During one of the sessions, the patient tells the PMHNP that she is having a problem getting her child support payments from her ex-husband, which is triggering increased anxiety and anger, which she admittedly takes out on her children. How does the PMHNP respond in a way that upholds the supportive psychodynamic psychotherapy approach?
  2. Telling the patient to take a vacation to get away and relaxB.Suggesting that she seek legal helpC.Giving her advice about men and how to get them to pay child supportD.Suggesting that the patient start going to church to help find more solace.

NURS 6640 Walden – Online Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers
QUESTION 60The PMHNP is treating a patient with a substantial fear of feeling closed in (claustrophobia). Thus, the patient will not get into an elevator. The office where he works is on the 10th floor and this requires that he walk up and down the stairs in the morning and evening to get to his office. With permission from the patient, the PMHNP is beginning systematic desensitization to address the patient’s need to use the elevator. What is the PMHNP’s best plan of action?Begin by having the patient stand in front of the elevator and write down his feelingsB.Complete a 30-minute therapy session in an elevatorC.Allow the patient to watch an elevator go up and downD.Allow the patient to see the PMHNP getting into an elevator
QUESTION 63

  1. During a session, the PMHNP asks a patient with a history of sexual abuse to recall the relationship she had as a child with her parents. The patient responds by saying she has a headache and her stomach hurts, and starts talking about her physical ailments. What is the appropriate response by the PMHNP?
  2. Assure the patient that she does not have to discuss these memoriesB.Explain why it is important for the patient to discuss these memories openlyC.Tell the patient that she may not get better if she does not face her fearsD.Let the patient know that plenty of other people have similar painful memories, too
  1. A 35-year-old patient has been seeking treatment for depression for several months. The PMHNP does an assessment to see if processing has led to adaptive change. The patient’s self-references are positive in relation to past events, work is productive, relationships are adaptive, and there is congruence between behavior, thoughts, and affect. Based on this information, the PMHNP decides the patient ____________.
  2. will require more processing strategiesB.would benefit from the stabilization stageC.is ready to move to Stage III, future visioningD.no longer needs to continue with therapy NURS 6640 Walden – Online Mid Term Exam Questions and Answers

NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers- Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings II

NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers- Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings II

NURS 6560 Final Exam Review

General Pre and Post Op Care

  • Hemoglobin in relation to surgery
  • Predictors of increased morbidity and mortality post-operatively
  • Risks factors for poor wound healing
  • Medications the patient should take on the morning of surgery
  • Positioning in the PACU

 
Head, Neck, Esophagus, and Diaphragm

  • Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSHL) diagnosis and treatment
  • Otitis Externa – secondary treatment
  • Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma- treatment related complications
  • Achalasia risk factors
  • Traumatic diaphragmatic hernia repair

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Cardiology

  • EKG interpretation of different types of MI according to the leads presenting with signs of ischemia
  • Society of Thoracic Surgeon’s statistics and synopsis regarding patient outcomes after coronary artery bypass grafting and mortality
  • INR management
  • Mitral stenosis with catheter-based balloon mitral valvotomy and reduction of the transvalvular pressure gradient
  • Types of aortic aneurysms and immediate surgery

 
Pulmonary and Shock

  • Fatty Lipoma
  • Thymoma and autoimmune disorders
  • Positive TB skin test and when treatment is needed
  • Cardiac pressures related to shock and PE
  • Treatment for neurogenic shock, distributive-septic shock, and cardiogenic shock

NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers- Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings II
 
Acute Abdomen, Stomach/Duodenum, Appendix Disorders

  • Abdominal pain and epigastric pain workup and presentation
  • Symptoms of colicky pain
  • Gas stoppage sign
  • Pancreatitis labs
  • ureteral colic s/s
  • Perforated bowel s/s
  • Rebound tenderness
  • Diverticulitis s/s
  • When is a pelvic exam indicated and when can it be deferred?
  • Gastric resection and how vitamins absorption is affected
  • Post-op care of abdominal surgery
  • Gastroparesis
  • perforated ulcer s/s and resection and hospital complications
  • vagotomy
  • gastrinoma s/s
  • peptic ulcer disease s/s and management
  • gastrectomy and bezoar formation
  • Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
  • Pyloric obstruction s/s

 
Liver/Biliary Track, Pancreas, Spleen

  • Resection of the liver and regeneration- follow up monitoring
  • pregnant women and spontaneous hepatic rupture s/s
  • hepatic hemangiomas
  • hepatic adenomas s/s
  • portal hypertension with alcoholic liver disease s/s
  • acutely bleeding varices treatment
  • Budd-Chiari syndrome s/s
  • Von Willebrand’s disease
  • Paracentesis and subsequent analysis of the fluid
  • ascites s/s and treatment
  • chemical mediators of hepatic encephalopathy, protein intake
  • Extrahepatic obstruction s/s
  • Cholelithiasis s/s and treatment
  • Biliary colic s/s
  • acute pancreatitis s/s and causes
  • Grey Turner Sign
  • Ranson Criteria of Severity for pancreatitis
  • Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura s/s
  • myelodysplastic syndrome s/s and treatment

 
Intestines, Hernias, Abdominal Wall Lesions

  • Jejunum resection and effects on nutrition
  • Crohn’s disease complications
  • Small bowel obstruction s/s and treatment
  • anemias and abdominal discomfort diagnosis
  • Campylobacter jejuni s/ s and treatment
  • Pneumatosis s/s and treatment
  • Colectomy discharge education
  • transit time in constipation
  • bacterial growth in small and large intestine benefits vs. complications of over growth
  • Complete bowel obstruction s/s
  • Frame pattern of colon distention on x-ray
  • Inflammatory polyps
  • Radiographic work up for lower abdominal complaints
  • Diverticulitis assessment, s/s, diagnosis, and treatment
  • colovesical fistula treatment
  • sigmoid volvulus- s/s and treatment
  • colitis – s/s and treatment
  • McBurney’s sign
  • NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers- Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings II

 
Adrenals and Urogynecology

  • Unique features of adrenal surgery complications
  • Primary hyperaldosteronism- s/s, diagnosis and treatment
  • Aldosteronoma- s/s and treatment
  • Catecholamine-secreting tumor s/s
  • Pheochromocytoma treatment and complications
  • Cushing’s syndrome and adrenal tumor- s/s, lab values and results of removal of tumor
  • Bilateral total adrenalectomy post op treatment
  • Adrenal tumors with gender symptoms
  • Vesicoureteral reflux diagnosis
  • Hypospadias and circumcision
  • Administration of the American Urological Association (AUA) Symptom Scale-When is it needed?
  • microscopic hematuria- s/s and treatment
  • acute pyelonephritis s/s
  • Bladder distention treatment
  • Tuberculosis and UTI s/s
  • Posterior compartment syndrome- s/s and treatment
  • Menorrhagia diagnosis
  • Ectopic pregnancy- s/s and treatment
  • NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers- Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings II

Neurology, Orthopedics, Plastic/Reconstructive

  • Use of plain film x-rays with head injuries
  • Hypotension and head injury – risk of mortality
  • Cushing’s triad s/s
  • Closed head injury s/s and treatment
  • Acute subdural hematoma on CT scan
  • Concussion definition s/s and treatment
  • Brain Trauma Foundation recommendations for intracranial pressure monitoring
  • Crush injuries – s/s and treatment
  • Fasciotomy
  • open fractures – treatment
  • transverse process fractures – treatment
  • Flexion-distraction injuries – causes
  • Pelvic fracture – s/s
  • Scapular fracture – treatment
  • Proximal humerus fracture
  • full thickness grafts – when to use
  • Treatment of hypertrophic scar
  • Seborrheic keratosis – treatment
  • Verrucae lesions – s/s and treatment
  • Actinic keratosis – s/s and treatment
  • Time frame for suturing injuries

 
Oncology, Organ Transplant, Medical/Ethical

  • tumor nomenclature
  • various methods of tumor biopsy
  • Proctocolectomy – when is it needed
  • Partial response to neoadjuvant chemotherapy
  • Monoclonal antibodies uses and advantages
  • Acute post-radiation effects with throat cancer
  • Organ donation – when is a patient not a candidate for organ donation?
  • Use of Corticosteroids in post-transplant patients
  • Donation guidelines
  • Treatment strategies for bradyarrhythmias in post-heart transplant patients
  • Bone marrow transplant – treatment for prevention of rejection
  • Kidney transplant – treatment
  • First line treatment of acute rejection of liver
  • Ethical principles beneficence, nonmaleficence, veracity
  • Counseling rape victims
  • Informed Consent and cognitively impaired patients
  • End of life considerations

NURS 6560 Final Exam Questions and Answers- Advanced Practice Care of Adults in Acute Care Settings II