Apply the practices of planning, creating, and delivering an impact professional presentation.

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For this assignment you will apply the practices of planning, creating, and delivering an impact professional presentation. Identify an important presentation coming up at work in your near future. The topic is “ Due to the state of the nation, The company is  going to a telework atmosphere versus the normal all employee being present in actual work building and reporting daily to employees working from home 3 days a week and employees will be in the offices two days a week.   This will be a power point presentation with notes at a company wide meeting and few key decision-makers in the  company. Think carefully about how to define the major objectives of your presentation, so that you can design and deliver your presentation with those objectives clearly in mind. How will you present this to management. NOTE: since the temporary work from home schedule production has increased by 5%.

Instructions Follow the steps below to prepare your slide deck. Prepare a PowerPoint presentation slide deck of 20 slides or less for a topic of your choice, related to your workplace or career interests. 2. Apply slide design best practices: use brief slide headings and minimal text, include images and/or charts, and format your slides professionally. The main focus is you, the speaker, with the slides providing support for your ideas and overall message.

Slide deck is clear and well structured, using design best practices. It serves as an effective visual aid to support the presenter’s objectives. If research was completed, a References slide is included at the end.

The Genitalia Of An Uncircumcised Adult Male.

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You are inspecting the genitalia of an

Question

Question 1

You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:

a. chart the finding as paraphimosis.
b. inquire about previous penile infections.
c. retract the foreskin firmly.
d. transilluminate the glans.

Question 2

While examining an 18-year-old man, you note that his penis and testicles are more darkly pigmented than the body skin. You should consider this finding to be:

a. within normal limits.
b. suggestive of a skin fungus.
c. suggestive of psoriasis.
d. caused by excessive progesterone.

Question 3

Which penile structure should be visible to inspection during the physical examination?

a. Dorsal vein
b. Proximal urethral
c. Epididymis
d. Corpus cavernosa

Question 4

Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles?

a. Condyloma acuminatum
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Herpetic lesions
d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

Question 5

The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is:

a. hiatal.
b. incarcerated femoral.
c. indirect inguinal.
d. umbilical.

Question 6

The movement of the testes by muscular action regulates:

a. ejaculatory flow.
b. sebaceous production.
c. testicular temperature.
d. urinary flow.

Question 7

Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?

a. Circumcision
b. Condyloma acuminatum
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Poor hygiene

Question 8

Which condition is a complication of mumps in the adolescent or adult?

a. Cystitis
b. Epididymitis
c. Orchitis
d. Paraphimosis

Question 9

Which of the following hernias occurs more often in females and has the lowest incidence of occurrence?

a. Indirect
b. direct
c. femoral
d. ventral

Question 10

The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is:

a. testicular torsion.
b. epididymitis.
c. tumor.
d. hydrocele.

Question 11

Which one of the following conditions is of minor consequence in an adult male?

a. Adhesions of the foreskin
b. Continuous penile erection
c. Lumps in the scrotal skin
d. Venous dilation in the spermatic cord

Question 12

The greatest contribution to the volume of ejaculate comes from the:

a. prostate.
b. epididymis.
c. seminal vesicles.
d. corpus cavernosa.

Question 13

Which type of hernia lies within the inguinal canal?

a. Umbilical
b. Direct
c. Indirect
d. Femoral

Question 14

Which technique is appropriate for detecting an inguinal hernia?

a. Conduct percussion while the patient coughs.
b. Have the patient strain as you pinch the testes.
c. Inspect rectal areas as the patient bears down.
d. Move your finger upward along the vas deferens.

Question 15

The most common cancer in young men aged 15 to 30 years is:

a. testicular.
b. penile.
c. prostate.
d. anal.

Question 16

Which structure of the male genitalia travels through the inguinal canal and unites with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct?

a. Epididymis
b. Prostate gland
c. Testicles
d. Vas deferens

Question 17

You palpate a soft, slightly tender mass in the right scrotum of an adult male. You attempt to reduce the size of the mass, and there is no change in the mass size. Your next assessment maneuver is to:

a. use two fingers to attempt to reduce the mass.
b. palpate the left scrotum simultaneously.
c. lift the right testicle and then compare pain level.
d. transilluminate the mass

Question 18

When examining a small child, in which position should he be placed to help push the testicles into the scrotum?

a. Supine
b. Tailor
c. Standing
d. Prone

Question 19

Which of the following is the most accurate approximation of normal adult testicular size (in centimeters)?

a. 5 × 2 × 3
b. 2 × 3 × 3
c. 4 × 3 × 2
d. 5 × 7 × 7

Question 20

The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:

a. painful, inflamed testicles.
b. deviation of the penis during erection.
c. lack of sexual interest.
d. painful lesions of the penis.

Question 21

The pelvic joint that separates most appreciably during late pregnancy is the:

a. sacroiliac.
b. symphysis pubis
c. sacrococcygeal.
d. iliofemoral.
Question 22

When collecting specimens, which sample should be obtained first?

a. Chlamydia swab
b. Gonococcal culture
c. Pap smear
d. Wet mount
Question 23

The vaginal discharge of a woman with a typical Trichomonas vaginalis infection is:

a. homogeneous and gray with a low pH.
b. scant and curdy with a low pH.
c. profuse and frothy with a high pH.
d. profuse and curdy with a low pH VERIFY

Question 24

The visualization of a large proportion of clue cells on your wet mount slide examination suggests:

a. trichomonal infection.
b. bacterial vaginosis.
c. candidiasis.
d. gonorrhea.
Question 25

The rectovaginal examination is an important component of the total pelvic examination because it:

a. is the most direct cervical examination route.
b. is a more comfortable examination for the posthysterectomy patient.
c. is an alternate source for cytology specimens.
d. allows the examiner to reach almost 2.5 cm higher into the pelvis.

Question 26

When you plan to obtain cytologic studies, speculum introduction may be facilitated by:

a. lubrication with gel.
b. lubrication with warm water.
c. use of a plastic speculum.
d. opening the blades completely.

Question 27

Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?

a. Skene glands
b. Clitoris
c. Perineum
d. Bartholin glands

Question 28

The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:

a. pregnancy.
b. nulliparity.
c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. vulvovaginitis.

Question 29

Which of the following findings indicates a possible gonococcal infection?

a. Bulging of the anterior or posterior vaginal wall
b. Discharge from urethra or Skene glands
c. Irregular urethral orifice in midline
d. Irregular vaginal edges at introitus

Question 30

The opening of the cervix is referred to as the:

introitus.

pouch of Douglas.

cervicalisthmus.

cervical os.

Question 31

Which of the following is a normal component of vaginal discharge seen on a wet mount?

a. Three to five white blood cells (WBCs)
b. Clue cells
c. Motile flagellates
d. Spores and hyphae

Question 32

The presence of a fishy odor after adding potassium hydroxide to a wet mount slide containing vaginal mucus suggests:

a. bacterial vaginosis.
b. yeast infection.
c. chlamydial infection.
d. pregnancy.

Question 33

The vaginal mucosa of a woman of childbearing years should appear:

a. smooth and pink.
b. moist and excoriated.
c. dry and papular.
d. transversely rugated.

Question 34

Young women who are not sexually active should have their first pelvic examination:

a. by age 15 years.
b. by age 18 years.
c. by age 21 years.
d. only after they become sexually active.

Question 35

Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer?

a. Endometriosis
b. Low parity
c. Multiple sex partners
d. Obesity

Question 36

Which systemic feature is related to the effects of menopause?

a. Increased abdominal fat distribution
b. Decreased LDL levels
c. Cold intolerance
d. Decreased cholesterol levels

Question 37

What accommodations should be used for the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination?

a. The patient should assume the M or V po-sition.
b. Her legs should be farther apart.
c. The head of the table should be elevated.
d. The lithotomy position with obstetric stir-rups should be used.

Question 38

The risk of ovarian cancer is increased by:

a. the use of oral contraceptives.
b. cigarette smoking.
c. age between 35 and 50 years.
d. early age at first intercourse.

Question 39

The mother of an 8-year-old child reports that she has recently noticed a discharge stain on her daughter’s underwear. Both the mother and daughter appear nervous and concerned. You would need to ask questions to assess the child’s:

a. drug ingestion.
b. fluid intake.
c. risk for sexual abuse.
d. hormone responsiveness.

Question 40

Which one of the following is a proper technique for the use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?

a. Allow the labia to spread, and insert the speculum slightly open.
b. Insert one finger, and insert the opened speculum.
c. Press the introitus downward, and insert the closed speculum obliquely.
d. Spread the labia, and insert the closed speculum horizontally.

You are inspecting the genitalia of an

Question

Question 1

You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:

a. chart the finding as paraphimosis.
b. inquire about previous penile infections.
c. retract the foreskin firmly.
d. transilluminate the glans.

Question 2

While examining an 18-year-old man, you note that his penis and testicles are more darkly pigmented than the body skin. You should consider this finding to be:

a. within normal limits.
b. suggestive of a skin fungus.
c. suggestive of psoriasis.
d. caused by excessive progesterone.

Question 3

Which penile structure should be visible to inspection during the physical examination?

a. Dorsal vein
b. Proximal urethral
c. Epididymis
d. Corpus cavernosa

Question 4

Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles?

a. Condyloma acuminatum
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Herpetic lesions
d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

Question 5

The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is:

a. hiatal.
b. incarcerated femoral.
c. indirect inguinal.
d. umbilical.

Question 6

The movement of the testes by muscular action regulates:

a. ejaculatory flow.
b. sebaceous production.
c. testicular temperature.
d. urinary flow.

Question 7

Which of the following is a risk factor for testicular cancer?

a. Circumcision
b. Condyloma acuminatum
c. Cryptorchidism
d. Poor hygiene

Question 8

Which condition is a complication of mumps in the adolescent or adult?

a. Cystitis
b. Epididymitis
c. Orchitis
d. Paraphimosis

Question 9

Which of the following hernias occurs more often in females and has the lowest incidence of occurrence?

a. Indirect
b. direct
c. femoral
d. ventral

Question 10

The most emergent cause of testicular pain in a young male is:

a. testicular torsion.
b. epididymitis.
c. tumor.
d. hydrocele.

Question 11

Which one of the following conditions is of minor consequence in an adult male?

a. Adhesions of the foreskin
b. Continuous penile erection
c. Lumps in the scrotal skin
d. Venous dilation in the spermatic cord

Question 12

The greatest contribution to the volume of ejaculate comes from the:

a. prostate.
b. epididymis.
c. seminal vesicles.
d. corpus cavernosa.

Question 13

Which type of hernia lies within the inguinal canal?

a. Umbilical
b. Direct
c. Indirect
d. Femoral

Question 14

Which technique is appropriate for detecting an inguinal hernia?

a. Conduct percussion while the patient coughs.
b. Have the patient strain as you pinch the testes.
c. Inspect rectal areas as the patient bears down.
d. Move your finger upward along the vas deferens.

Question 15

The most common cancer in young men aged 15 to 30 years is:

a. testicular.
b. penile.
c. prostate.
d. anal.

Question 16

Which structure of the male genitalia travels through the inguinal canal and unites with the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct?

a. Epididymis
b. Prostate gland
c. Testicles
d. Vas deferens

Question 17

You palpate a soft, slightly tender mass in the right scrotum of an adult male. You attempt to reduce the size of the mass, and there is no change in the mass size. Your next assessment maneuver is to:

a. use two fingers to attempt to reduce the mass.
b. palpate the left scrotum simultaneously.
c. lift the right testicle and then compare pain level.
d. transilluminate the mass

Question 18

When examining a small child, in which position should he be placed to help push the testicles into the scrotum?

a. Supine
b. Tailor
c. Standing
d. Prone

Question 19

Which of the following is the most accurate approximation of normal adult testicular size (in centimeters)?

a. 5 × 2 × 3
b. 2 × 3 × 3
c. 4 × 3 × 2
d. 5 × 7 × 7

Question 20

The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:

a. painful, inflamed testicles.
b. deviation of the penis during erection.
c. lack of sexual interest.
d. painful lesions of the penis.

Question 21

The pelvic joint that separates most appreciably during late pregnancy is the:

a. sacroiliac.
b. symphysis pubis
c. sacrococcygeal.
d. iliofemoral.
Question 22

When collecting specimens, which sample should be obtained first?

a. Chlamydia swab
b. Gonococcal culture
c. Pap smear
d. Wet mount
Question 23

The vaginal discharge of a woman with a typical Trichomonas vaginalis infection is:

a. homogeneous and gray with a low pH.
b. scant and curdy with a low pH.
c. profuse and frothy with a high pH.
d. profuse and curdy with a low pH VERIFY

Question 24

The visualization of a large proportion of clue cells on your wet mount slide examination suggests:

a. trichomonal infection.
b. bacterial vaginosis.
c. candidiasis.
d. gonorrhea.
Question 25

The rectovaginal examination is an important component of the total pelvic examination because it:

a. is the most direct cervical examination route.
b. is a more comfortable examination for the posthysterectomy patient.
c. is an alternate source for cytology specimens.
d. allows the examiner to reach almost 2.5 cm higher into the pelvis.

Question 26

When you plan to obtain cytologic studies, speculum introduction may be facilitated by:

a. lubrication with gel.
b. lubrication with warm water.
c. use of a plastic speculum.
d. opening the blades completely.

Question 27

Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?

a. Skene glands
b. Clitoris
c. Perineum
d. Bartholin glands

Question 28

The presence of cervical motion tenderness may indicate:

a. pregnancy.
b. nulliparity.
c. pelvic inflammatory disease.
d. vulvovaginitis.

Question 29

Which of the following findings indicates a possible gonococcal infection?

a. Bulging of the anterior or posterior vaginal wall
b. Discharge from urethra or Skene glands
c. Irregular urethral orifice in midline
d. Irregular vaginal edges at introitus

Question 30

The opening of the cervix is referred to as the:

introitus.

pouch of Douglas.

cervicalisthmus.

cervical os.

Question 31

Which of the following is a normal component of vaginal discharge seen on a wet mount?

a. Three to five white blood cells (WBCs)
b. Clue cells
c. Motile flagellates
d. Spores and hyphae

Question 32

The presence of a fishy odor after adding potassium hydroxide to a wet mount slide containing vaginal mucus suggests:

a. bacterial vaginosis.
b. yeast infection.
c. chlamydial infection.
d. pregnancy.

Question 33

The vaginal mucosa of a woman of childbearing years should appear:

a. smooth and pink.
b. moist and excoriated.
c. dry and papular.
d. transversely rugated.

Question 34

Young women who are not sexually active should have their first pelvic examination:

a. by age 15 years.
b. by age 18 years.
c. by age 21 years.
d. only after they become sexually active.

Question 35

Which risk factor is associated with cervical cancer?

a. Endometriosis
b. Low parity
c. Multiple sex partners
d. Obesity

Question 36

Which systemic feature is related to the effects of menopause?

a. Increased abdominal fat distribution
b. Decreased LDL levels
c. Cold intolerance
d. Decreased cholesterol levels

Question 37

What accommodations should be used for the position of a hearing-impaired woman for a pelvic examination?

a. The patient should assume the M or V po-sition.
b. Her legs should be farther apart.
c. The head of the table should be elevated.
d. The lithotomy position with obstetric stir-rups should be used.

Question 38

The risk of ovarian cancer is increased by:

a. the use of oral contraceptives.
b. cigarette smoking.
c. age between 35 and 50 years.
d. early age at first intercourse.

Question 39

The mother of an 8-year-old child reports that she has recently noticed a discharge stain on her daughter’s underwear. Both the mother and daughter appear nervous and concerned. You would need to ask questions to assess the child’s:

a. drug ingestion.
b. fluid intake.
c. risk for sexual abuse.
d. hormone responsiveness.

Question 40

Which one of the following is a proper technique for the use of a speculum during a vaginal examination?

a. Allow the labia to spread, and insert the speculum slightly open.
b. Insert one finger, and insert the opened speculum.
c. Press the introitus downward, and insert the closed speculum obliquely.
d. Spread the labia, and insert the closed speculum horizontally.

nursing

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People with mental health conditions often fear workplace reprisals if they seek mental health care with employer-provided insurance. What kind of system changes can improve this situation? How can nurses be involved in getting more people who need attention into mental health care? Read the following 60 Minutes report (you do not need to watch the video – scroll down to read). Given the insurance barriers and many other barriers to long-term mental health care, what can advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) do for patients and their families once they leave care?

Operations Management

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– Subject: Operations Management

– Recommended textbook for the subject (it is attached): Heizer, J., Render, B., & Munson, C. (2017). Operations Management, (12th Ed.), Boston, MA: Prentice Hall, ISBN: 978-0-13-413042-2. Chapters 13, 14 & 15.

– Use of APA style required in all the assignment.

– Answer the following essay questions:

  1. Yield or revenue management is used with organizations that have a perishable inventory such as airlines, hotels, car rental agencies, and cruise lines. List five of the shared characteristics that make yield management of interest to these types of companies.
  2. In a product structure diagram, select the one that is not part of the diagram.
    1. Children are found at every level of the diagram except the top level
    2. Parents are found only at the top level of the diagram
    3. All items in the diagrams are both parents and children
    4. Children are found at every level of the diagram including the top level
    5. All of the above
  3. What is computerized short-term scheduling that overcomes the disadvantage of rule-based systems by providing the user with graphical interactive computing?
    1. LPT
    2. CSS
    3. FCFS
    4. FCS
    5. TGI
  4. Which of the following is not one of the graphical method steps?
    1. Find labor costs, hiring and layoff costs, and inventory holding costs
    2. Construct the transportation table
    3. Consider company policy that may apply to the workers or stock levels
    4. Determine the demand in each period
    5. None of the above
  5. Which of the following is a lot sizing procedure that assumes a finite time horizon beyond which no additional net requirements are needed?
    1. Part period balancing
    2. Economic order quantity
    3. Wagner-Whitin algorithm
    4. None of the above
  6. Explain the relationship between short-term scheduling, capacity planning, aggregate planning, and a master schedule.
  7. CASE STUDY – Old Oregon Wood Store: Go to page 630 in your textbook and look for this case study at the bottom of the page. Study it carefully and answer the four discussion questions at the end one by one.