Do you feel that nurses who initially graduate from Baccalaureate programs are better prepared to provide care to patients than those who graduate from diploma or traditional nursing degree programs?

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In nursing there are several paths that lead to obtaining a license and becoming a member of the profession. In this class some have obtained a license either as a licensed practical nurse (LPN) or a registered nurse (RN) through the traditional nursing program or diploma program.
It has been believed in the past that a nurse is a nurse is a nurse because even though nurses were prepared in different programs that varied in length and content graduates of the programs were all called nurse.
Do you feel that nurses who initially graduate from Baccalaureate programs are better prepared to provide care to patients than those who graduate from diploma or traditional nursing degree programs?
What do you think is driving the push for the Baccalaureate degree in the nursing profession?
Where do you go from here? As nursing and nurses have become more autonomous and independent is it enough to have a Baccalaureate degree?
Think about how the educational requirements of the nursing profession compare with other professions such as therapists for example.

Name three characteristics of viruses

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150 word minimum for question #1 ONLY. Any materials used in answering the questions must be put in your own words and the reference(s) must be properly cited.
According to some scientists, in developing countries, the impact of human population growth can be related to many environmental problems. Soil erosion and loss of biodiversity due to people moving on to previously unfarmed land are very severe in many developing countries. Air pollution in the cities of many developing countries exceeds internationally recognized standards. Between the use of outdated technology and financial inability to maintain a well-tuned car, many automobiles in the developing world are severe polluters.
Water pollution is mainly a problem due to nutrient loading. The quantity of energy used per person in the developed world is small when compared to the quantity used per person in the under developed world.
Pretend you are a world top human population consultant and major city development planner. Undeveloped country, Country X, is under reform. Your job is to research Country X’s population and serve on a team to redevelop Country X’s most populated areas. Which of the above environmental problems would you address first? Why? Describe your plan.
100 word minimum for questions 2-7. Any materials used in answering the questions must be put in your own words and the reference(s) must be properly cited.
Describe the rabies experiment of Louis Pasteur discussed in the story. Research how Pasteur’s injections cured Andre. How do rabies immunizations work today?
Name three characteristics of viruses. Are viruses living or nonliving? Defend your answer.
List the three groups of archaebacteria. How are they different from bacteria? Which would most likely be found in a hot liquid with a pH of 3? Why?
Describe four pieces of evidence used to support the theory of evolution.
Explain the process by which moth species declined in England in the past decades? How did some species of moths increase at the same time?
Name the type of speciation that results when a species cannot mate due to a change in their use of a habitat. Explain how it results in speciation.

Discuss how the professional nurse may function as a leader in promoting quality care and influencing quality improvement activities.

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Follow Task instructions: please review enclosed scenario and have detailed explanations for topics (A- C4) . Joint Commission is a useful website. Reference and title page must be included however an Abstract isnt necessary. Paper must be a minimum of 10 double spaced pages not including reference. 4 pages total
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7 ask # .9-
Competencies: 734.3.1: Principles of Leadership The graduate applies
principles of leadership to promote high-quality healthcare in a variety of settings
through the application of sound leadership principles.
734.3.2: Interdisciplinary Collaboration The graduate applies theoretical
principles necessary for effective participation in an interdisciplinary team.
734.3.3: Quality and Patient Safety The graduate applies quality improvement
processes intended to achieve optimal healthcare outcomes contributing to and
supporting a culture of safety.
734.3.4: Healthcare Utilization and Finance The graduate analyzes financial
implications related to healthcare delivery reimbursement access and national
initiatives
Introduction:
Healthcare organizations accredited by the Joint Commission are
required to conduct a root cause analysis (RCA) in response to any
sentinel event such as the one described below. Once the cause is
identified and a plan of action established it is useful to conduct a
failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) to reduce the likelihood that
a process would fail. As a member of the healthcare team in the
hospital described in this scenario you have been selected as a
member of the team investigating the incident.
Scenario:
Scenario:
It is 3:30 pm. on a Thursday and Mr. B a 67-year-old patient arrives at the six-
room emergency department (ED) of a sixty-bed rural hospital. He has been brought
to the hospital by his son and neighbor. At this time Mr. B is moaning and
complaining of severe pain to his (L) leg and hip area. He states he lost his balance
and fell after tripping over his dog.
Mr. B was admitted to the triage room where his vital signs were B/P 120/80 HR-88
(regular) T-98.6 R-32 and his weight was recorded at 175 pounds. Mr. B. states
that he has no known allergies and no previous falls. He states My hip area and leg
hurt really bad. I have never had anything like this before. Patient rates pain at ten
out of ten on the numerical verbal pain scale. He appears to be in moderate distress.
His (L) leg appears shortened with swelling (edema in the calf) ecchymosis and
limited range of motion (ROM). Mr. Bs leg is stabilized and then he is further
evaluated and discharged from triage to the emergency department (ED) patient
room. He is admitted by Nurse J. The admitting nurse finds that Mr. B has a history
of impaired glucose tolerance and prostate cancer. At Mr. Bs last visit with his
primary care physician laboratory data revealed elevated cholesterol and lipids. Mr.
Bs current medications are atorvastatin and oxycodone for chronic back pain. After
the nurse completes Mr. Bs assessment Nurse J informs the ED physician of
admission findings and the ED physician proceeds to examine Mr. B.
Staffing on this day consists of two nurses (one RN and one LPN) one secretary and
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TUK#
2-
Competencies: 7343.7: Principles of Leadership The graduate applies
principles of leadership to promote high-quality healthcare in a variety of settings
through the application of sound leadership principles
734.3.2: Interdisciplinary Collaboration The graduate applies theoretical
principles necessary for effective participation in an interdisciplinary team.
734.33: Quality and Patient Safety The graduate applies quality improvement
processes intended to achieve optimal healthcare outcomes contributing to and
supporting a culture of safety.
734.3.4: Healthcare Utilization and Finance The graduate analyzes financial
implications related to healthcare delivery reimbursement access and national
initiatives
Introduction:
Healthcare organizations accredited by the Joint Commission are
required to conduct a root cause analysis (RCA) in response to any
sentinel event such as the one described below Once the cause is
identified and a plan of action established it is useful to conduct a
failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) to reduce the likelihood that
a process would fail. As a member of the healthcare team in the
hospital described in this scenario you have been selected as a
member of the team investigating the incident.
Scenario:
Scenario:
-+
It is 3:30 p.m. on a Thursday and Mr. B a 67-year-old patient arrives at the sixroom emergency department (ED) of a sixty-bed rural hospital. He has been brought
to the hospital by his son and neighbor. At this time Mr. B is moaning and
complaining of severe pain to his (L) leg and hip area. He states he lost his balance
and fell after tripping over his dog.
Mr. B was admitted to the triage room where his vital signs were BlP tz1l91 HR-88
(regular) T-98.6 R-32 and his weight was recorded at 175 pounds. Mr. B. states
that he has no known allergies and no previous falls. He states My hip area and leg
hurt really bad I have never had anything like this before. Patient rates pain at ten
out of ten on the numerical verbal pain scale. He appears to be in moderate distress.
His (L) leg appears shortened with swelling (edema in the calf) ecchymosis and
limited range of motion (ROM). Mr. Bs leg is stabilized and then he is further
evaluated and discharged from triage to the emergency department (ED) patient
room. He is admitted by Nurse l. The admitting nurse finds that Mr B has a history
of impaired glucose tolerance and prostate cancer. At Mr. Bs last visit with his
primary care physician laboratory data revealed elevated cholesterol and lipids. Mr.
Bs current medications are atorvastatin and oxycodone for chronic back pain. After
the nurse completes Mr. Bs assessment Nurse J informs the ED physician of
admission findings and the ED physician proceeds to examine Mr. B.
Staffing on this day consists of two nurses (one RN and one LPN) one secretary and
:-
I
I
/
i
one emergency department physician. Respiratory therapy is in-house and available
as needed. At the time of Mr. Bs arrival the ED staff is caring for two other patients.
One patient is a 43-year-old female complaining of a throbbing headache. The
patlent rates current pain at four out of ten on numerical verbal pain scale. The
patient states that she has a history of migraines. She received treatment remains
stable and discharge is pending. The second patient is an eight-year-old boy being
evaluated for possible appendicitis. Laboratory results are pending for this patient.
Both of these patients were examined evaluated and cared for by the ED physician
and are awaiting further treatment or orders.
After evaluation of Mr. B Dr. T the ED physician writes the order for Nurse J to
administer diazepam 5 mg IVP to Mr. B. The medication diazepam is administered
IVP at 4:05 p.m. After five minutes the diazepam appears to have had no effect on
Mr. B and Dr. T instructs Nurse J to administer hydromorphone 2 mg IVP. The
medication (hydromorphone) is administered IVP at 4:15 pm. After five minutes Dr.
T is still not satisfied with the level of sedation Mr. B has achieved and instructs
Nurse J to administer another 2 mg of hydromorphone IVP and an additional 5 mg of
diazepam IVP. The physicians goal is for the patient to achieve skeletal muscle
relaxation from the diazepam which will aid in the manual manipulation relocation
and alignment of Mr. Bs hip. The hydromorphone IVP was administered to achieve
pain control and sedation. After reviewing the patients medical history Dr. T notes
that the patients weight and current regular use of oxycodone appear to be making
it more difficult to sedate Mr. B.
Finally at4:25 the patient appears to be sedated and the successful reduction of his
(L) hip takes place. The patient appears to have tolerated the procedure and remains
sedated. He is not currently on any supplemental oxygen. The procedure concludes
at4:30 p.m. and Mr. B is resting without indications of discomfort and distress. At
this time the ED receives an emergency dispatch call alerting the emergency
department that the emergency rescue unit paramedics are en route with a 75-yearold patient in acute respiratory distress. Nurse J places Mr. B on an automatic blood
pressure machine programmed to monitor his B/P every five minutes and a pulse
oximeter. At this time Nurse J leaves his room. The nurse allows Mr. Bs son to sit
with him as he is being monitored via the blood pressure monitor. At 4:35 Mr. Bs
B/P is LLO/62 and his 02 sat is92o/o. He remains without supplemental oxygen and
his ECG and respirations are not monitored
Nurse I and the LPN on duty have received the emergency transport patient. They
are also in the process of discharging the other two patients. Meanwhile the ED
lobby has become congested with new incoming patients. At this time Mr. Bs 02
saturation alarm is heard and shows low 02 saturation (currently showing a sat of
85o/o). The LPN enters Mr. Bs room briefly and resets the alarm and repeats the B/P
reading.
Nurse J is now fully engaged with the emergency care of the respiratory distress
patient which includes assessments evaluation and the ordering respiratory
treatments CXR labs etc.
At 4:43 Mr. Bs son comes out of the room and informs the nurse that the monitor
is alarming. When Nurse J enters the room the blood pressure machine shows Mr.
Bs B/P reading is 58/30 and the 02 sat is 79o/o. The patient is not breathing and no
palpable pulse can be detected.
c:
.1
ff
A STAT CODE is called and the son is escorted to the waiting room. The code team
arrives and begins resuscitative efforts. When connected to the cardiac monitor Mr.
B is found to be in ventricular fibrillation. CPR begins immediately by the RN and Mr.
B is intubated He is defibrillated and reversal agents IV fluids and vasopressors are
administered. After 30 minutes of interventions the ECG returns to a normal sinus
rhythm with a pulse and a B/P of LLO/7O. The patient is not breathing on his own
and is fully dependent on the ventilator. The patients pupils are fixed and dilated. He
has no spontaneous movements and does not respond to noxious stimuli. Air
transport is called and upon the familys wishes the patient is transferred to a
tertiary facility for advanced care
Seven days later the receiving hospital informed the rural hospital that EEGs had
determined brain death in Mr. B. The family had requested life-support be removed
and Mr. B subsequently died.
Additional information: The hospital where Mr. B. was originally seen and treated had
a moderate sedation/analgesia (conscious sedation) policy that requires that the
patient remains on continuous B/P ECG and pulse oximeter throughout the
procedure and until the patient meets specific discharge criteria (i.e. fully awake
VSS no N/V and able to void) All practitioners who perform moderate sedation
must first successfully complete the hospitals moderate sedation training module.
The training module includes drug selection as well as acceptable dose ranges.
Additional (backup) staff was available on the day of the incident. Nurse J had
completed the moderate sedation module. Nurse J had current ACLS certification and
was an experienced critical care nurse. Nurse Js prior annual clinical evaluations by
the manager demonstrated that the nurse was meeting requirements. Nurse J did
not have a history of negligent patient care. Sufficient equipment was available and
in working order in the ED on this day.
Task:
a root cause analysis (RCA) that takes into consideration causative
factors errors and/or hazards that led to the sentinel event (this patients
outcome).
A. Complete
B.
Discuss a process improvement plan that would decrease the likelihood of a
reoccurrence of the outcome of the scenario.
1. Discuss a change theory that could be used to implement the process
improvement plan developed in B.
failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA) to project the likelihood that
the process improvement plan you suggest would not fail.
1. Identify the members of the interdisciplinary team who will be included in
the FMEA
2. Discuss steps for preparing for the FMEA.
3. Apply the three steps of the FMEA (severity occurrence and detection) to
the process improvement plan created in part B
4. Explain how you would test the interventions from the process
improvement plan from part B to improve care in a similar situation.
C. Use a
Note:You are not expected to carry out the full FMEA but you should
explain each step and how you would apply it to your process
improvement plan
D.
Discuss how the professional nurse may function as a leader in promoting
quality care and influencing quality improvement activities.
E. When you use sources to support ideas and elements in a paper or project
provide acknowledgement of source information for any content that is
quoted paraphrased or summarized. Acknowledgement of source information
includes in-text citation noting specifically where in the submission the source
is used and a corresponding reference which includes:
o Author
o
r
r
Date
Title
Location of information (e.9. publisher iournal or website URL)
Note: The use of APA citation style is encouraged but is not required for this task.
Evaluators will offer feedback on the acknowledgement of source information but not
with regard to conformity with APA or other citation style. For tips on using APA
style please refer to the APA Resources web link found under General
Information/APA Guidelines in the left-hand panel in TaskStream
Note; No more than a combined total of 3oo/o of a submission can be directly quoted
or closely paraphrased from outside sources even if cited correctly.
p Evatuation
Method
NewOCR.com 2009 2015

The part of the brain that is associated with producing all of the emotions is the

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Some parts of the brain that belong to the limbic system are the
Question 1 options:
a) amygdala and hippocampus
b) basal ganglia and cingulate cortex.
c) thalamus and hypothalamus.
d) pons, cerebellum, and medulla oblongata.
Save
Question 2 (1 point)
According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, we feel fear when
Question 2 options:
a) we have learned that fear responses lead to rewards.
b) we see others showing fear.
c) we judge that a threat is present.
d) we feel the fight-or-flight response is underway.
Save
Question 3 (1 point)
Which is NOT an important principle of the study devoted to the biological bases of behavior (behavioral neuroscience, psychobiology, physiological psychology):
Question 3 options:
a) the nervous system controls and responds to body functions and directs behavior
b) nervous system structure and function are determined by both genes and environment throughout life
c) every behavior can be explained solely by reference to the brain
d) the brain is the foundation of the mind, making learning, memory, language, and other processes possible
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Question 4 (1 point)
Which of the following is NOT true about amnesia?
Question 4 options:
a) It is always caused by brain damage.
b) It may involve an inability to form new memories.
c) It may involve an inability to retrieve old memories.
d) Amnesic patients typically recover within a few days.
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Question 5 (1 point)
Stages of sleep are easily distinguished by
Question 5 options:
a) changes in respiration
b) the quality and quantity of dreams
c) chcanges in the electrical activity of the brain
d) changes in consciousness
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Question 6 (1 point)
The smallest meaningful unit of speech is the
Question 6 options:
a) reflex
b) grapheme
c) phoneme
d) morpheme
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Question 7 (1 point)
Study of the function of the living human brain is difficult for all the following reasons, EXCEPT
Question 7 options:
a) it is unethical to induce brain damage in humans for the purpose of research
b) brain damage is rarely the same from case to case
c) a damaged brain gives us little information about brain structure and function in the living brain
d) it is difficult to obtain the brain of a person who has suffered brain damage
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Question 8 (1 point)
Tameness, hyperorality, and damage to the amygdala are common features of
Question 8 options:
a) Klüver-Bucy syndrome
b) fight-or-flight syndrome
c) fetal alcohol syndrome
d) REM sleep
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Question 9 (1 point)
Receptors for the sense of touch include
Question 9 options:
a) hair cells
b) bipolar neurons
c) stretch receptors
d) Meissner corpuscles
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Question 10 (1 point)
The increasing permanence of a memory is referred to as
Question 10 options:
a) tolerance
b) consolidation
c) encoding
d) law of mass action
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Question 11 (1 point)
What is considered an analogue of schizophrenia?
Question 11 options:
a) bipolar depression
b) amphetamine psychosis
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Drug addiction
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Question 12 (1 point)
Oxytocin is associated with which of the following emotions?
Question 12 options:
a) fear and anxiety
b) love and trust
c) disgust
d) decorticate rage
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Question 13 (1 point)
Research has shown that the capacity of some human couples to pair bond may reflect the activity of
Question 13 options:
a) oxytocin and dopamine
b) glutamate and glycine
c) dopamine and vasopression
d) vasopressin and oxytocin
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Question 14 (1 point)
For humans, the diploid number of chromosomes is ____ and the haploid number is _____.
Question 14 options:
a) 46; 23
b) 23; 23
c) 92; 46
d) 46; 92
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Question 15 (1 point)
Which of the following effects would you attribute to frontal lobe damage?
Question 15 options:
a) Inability to comprehend speech
b) Blindness in half the visual field
c) Poorly regulated emotions
d) Inability to remember tunes
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Question 16 (1 point)
Activation of the ________ elicits various behavioral, autonomic, and hormonal emotional responses.
Question 16 options:
a) nucleus accumbens
b) central nucleus of the amygdala
c) orbitofrontal cortex
d) medial geniculate nucleus
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Question 17 (1 point)
An inability to form new permanent (long-term) memories is called
Question 17 options:
a) anterograde amnesia
b) retrograde amnesia
c) transient global amnesia
d) tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon
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Question 18 (1 point)
Stress hormones of the adrenal glands are
Question 18 options:
a) corticotropin-releasing hormone and ACTH
b) acetylcholine and serotonin
c) androgens and estrogens
d) epinephrine/norepinephrine and cortisol
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Question 19 (1 point)
Which of the following patterns would you diagnose as Broca’s aphasia?
Question 19 options:
a) Impaired speech production in patients who are aware of the difficulty
b) Impaired speech comprehension in patients who are unaware of the difficulty
c) Inability to remember the names of things
d) Ability to speak more than one language
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Question 20 (1 point)
Which of the following is most likely to be the major neuronal process underlying consolidation?
Question 20 options:
a) lateral inhibition
b) receptor adaptation
c) long-term potentiation
d) glycolysis
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Question 21 (1 point)
Based on the study of patient H.M., it has been concluded that
Question 21 options:
a) short-term memories are stored within the hippocampus
b) the hippocampus is required for retrieval of long-term memories
c) long-term memories are stored within the hippocampus
d) the hippocampus converts short-term memories into long-term memories
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Question 22 (1 point)
Which of the following is true of learning?
Question 22 options:
a) Learning and memory are synonymous.
b) Long-term memories are related to the electrical activity of the brain
c) Learning involves the modification of the nervous system by experience.
d) Learning is possible in the absence of memory.
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Question 23 (1 point)
Verbal behavior is said to be a lateralized function of the left hemisphere in that
Question 23 options:
a) most language problems are noted after damage to the right rather than to the left hemisphere
b) most language problems are noted after damage to the left rather than to the right hemisphere
c) right-handed persons are more likely to have their language center located within the right hemisphere
d) electrical stimulation of the left hemisphere has a smaller effect on language than does similar stimulation of the right hemisphere
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Question 24 (1 point)
The area of receptive surface on or in the body where stimulation may excite a sensory neuron is called a
Question 24 options:
a) receptive field
b) threshold
c) transduction
d) area centralis
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Question 25 (1 point)
Based on his observation of brain damage and behavioral difficulties in a stroke victim, Paul Broca concluded that:
Question 25 options:
a) the control of speech is a function of the left hemisphere
b) the right hemisphere controls movements on the right side of the body
c) damage to the right hemisphere impairs speech
d) different regions of the brain control heart rate and breathing,purposeful movements, and sensory function
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Question 26 (1 point)
Damage to the basal ganglia would be expected to produce difficulties in
Question 26 options:
a) speech perception
b) emotional experience
c) understanding social rules
d) motor movements
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Question 27 (1 point)
The idea that our emotions result from bodily changes such as adrenaline secretion is called the
Question 27 options:
a) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
b) saltatory conduction of thought
c) Klüver-Bucy theory of emotion
d) James-Lange theory of emotion
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Question 28 (1 point)
Which of the following supports the notion that heredity contributes to differences in body weight?
Question 28 options:
a) Pima Indians in the U.S. and Mexico share the same genes, but only those persons who live in a particular environment develop obesity.
b) Several forms of human obesity involve a deficit in ghrelin production, which can be treated by ghrelin injection.
c) Twin studies indicate that genes account for 25 percent of the variability in body fat accumulated when people are fed a high-fat diet.
d) Twin studies indicate that genes account for little of the variability in body fat accumulated when people are fed a high-fat diet.
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Question 29 (1 point)
Perseveration in decision-making reflects injury to
Question 29 options:
a) vestibular hair cells
b) long-term potentiation
c) prefrontal cortex
d) bipolar depression
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Question 30 (1 point)
Saying that schizophrenia has a genetic basis means that
Question 30 options:
a) there is a gene that is responsible for schizophrenia
b) schizophrenic parents will have schizophrenic children
c) a twin of a schizophrenic person has a greater than average chance of developing schizophrenia
d) some races are more schizophrenic than others
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Question 31 (1 point)
Research on the genetics of drug dependence indicates that
Question 31 options:
a) alcoholism and smoking are independent diseases
b) alcoholism and smoking share common genetic factors
c) smokers are high in status and achievement, but low in sensation seeking
d) alcoholics are high in status and achievement, but low in sensation seeking
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Question 32 (1 point)
Which of the following is strong evidence for a genetic contribution to a behavior?
Question 32 options:
a) Dizygotic twins haved a higher concordance rate than do monozygotic twins.
b) Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than do dizygotic twins.
c) Heterozygotic twins have a lower concordance rate than do monozygotic twins.
d) Adopted children resemble their adopted families wth regard to a trait.
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Question 33 (1 point)
Synaptic plasticity (i.e., changes in the structure or biochemistry of synapses that alters postsynaptic receptors) has been demonstrated most frequently in which psychological phenomena:
Question 33 options:
a) motivation
b) stress
c) learning
d) emotions
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Question 34 (1 point)
Experience stimulates the production of ____________ to produce brain plasticity in the form of enduring structural changes
Question 34 options:
a) neurotransmitters
b) hormones
c) neurotrophic factors
d) genes
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Question 35 (1 point)
The patient known as H.M. demonstrated which important aspects of amnesia?
Question 35 options:
a) Plasticity in recovering from significant brain damage; importance of past experience in forming memories; reliance of emotional regulation on frontal cortex
b) Involvment of the hippocampus in memory; ability of one kind of learning, such as mirror drawing, to survive amnesia affecting other kinds of learning.
c) Importance of youth in surviving major brain damage; dependence of brain plasticity on the Y chromosome.
d) Confirmation of the amygdala as a “fear center” and of prefrontal cortex as a inhibitor of the amygdala.
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Question 36 (1 point)
The role of neural reorganization in recovery of function after brain damage can be described as
Question 36 options:
a) controversial, but it is assumed to play some role
b) recently well-understood
c) well-understood only in lower mammals
d) well-established
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Question 37 (1 point)
The development of new neurons in adult brains can be described by the following EXCEPT:
Question 37 options:
a) adult brains are capable of major adaptation
b) adult brains are not as plastic as developing brains
c) adult brains are set in their own ways
d) new neurons created in adult brains can be integrated into existing neural circuits
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Question 38 (1 point)
The part of the brain that is associated with producing all of the emotions is the
Question 38 options:
a) hypothalamus
b) amygdala
c) frontal cortex
d) corpus callosum
Save
Question 39 (1 point)
Emotions are distinguished most clearly by
Question 39 options:
a) hormone secretions
b) behavior
c) how far a species has evolved
d) electrical activity of the left hemisphere
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Question 40 (1 point)
The number of alternations of dark and light within a small area of the retina is called
Question 40 options:
a) spatial frequency
b) the fovea
c) visual acuity
d) a receptive field
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Question 41 (20 points)
The brain is made up of approximately 100 billion nerve cells, or neurons, each with many thousands of interconnections. There is communication both within these neurons and from one neuron to the next.
First, describe these different forms of communication that explain how information is transmitted both (a) within the neuron and (b) between neurons. Then, discuss reasons and give examples why neuron communication is important to biopsychology.
Question 41 options:
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Question 42 (20 points)
One of the most exciting findings in biopsychology is that the developing brain has the capacity for a great deal of plasticity. It is known that the brains of preadolescent individuals are more plastic than those of adults. That is, they can recover from brain injury much more rapidly and completely than adults.
First, describe what is meant by plasticity and the different kinds of plasticity that are possible. Then, discuss what factors might account for the differences of more rapid recovery from brain injury in preadolescents compared to adults
Question 42 options:
Skip Toolbars for .
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Question 43 (20 points)
Identify three contributors to the development of biopsychology. Describe the ideas and/or research that the person is famous for. Discuss the reasons that their contributions are important to the field of contemporary biopsychology.